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D. Tong in his lecture note "String Theory" has mentioned on pages 11 and 12 on the contest of relativistic point particle that:

"We introduce a wavefunction $\Psi (X)$ which satisfies the usual Schrödinger equation $$i\frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial \tau}=H\Psi.\tag{p.11}$$ But, computing the Hamiltonian $H=\dot{X}^{\mu}p_{\mu}-L$ we find that it vanishes $H=0$. It is simply telling that the wavefunction doesn't depend on $\tau$ .... "

Here $$S=m\int d\tau \sqrt{-\dot{X}^{\mu}\dot{X}^{\nu}\eta_{\mu\nu}}.\tag{1.2}$$

In another paragraph he mentioned that $\Psi (X)$ satisfies in an operator equation (the Klein-Gordon equation) $$\Big( -\frac{\partial}{\partial X^{\mu}}\frac{\partial}{\partial X^{\nu}}\eta^{\mu\nu}+m^2\Big) \Psi (X)=0\tag{1.7}$$ (which comes from mass-shell condition). My main question is that: Doesn't the Schrödinger equation matter anymore in string theory? Do we have to use the Klein-Gordon equation instead of Schrödinger equation in string theory? I'm a little confused here. I was wondering if someone could explain me a little bit more.

Hyperon
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Mahtab
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1 Answers1

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Long story short: Yes, first quantization via the Schrödinger equation still applies in principle, but the analysis is more complicated due to the presence of gauge symmetry & constraints.

For related issues, see e.g. this & this Phys.SE posts.

Qmechanic
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