I am currently trying to get a better understanding of the basis sets used for computational quantum chemistry and as a start read ch.6 on the exact solution of the Schrödinger equation of the hydrogen atom in "Physical Chemistry: A Molecular Approach" by McQuarrie & Simons.
The solution for the radial and the polar angle part are just given and not formally derived, but I accept that the exact solution can be written as $$ \Psi(r\,\theta,\phi) = R_{nl}(r)\cdot Y^l_m(\theta,\phi), $$ where $Y^l_m(\theta,\phi)$ is the spherical harmonics function with angular momentum quantum number $l$ and magnetc momentum number $m$.
I just wonder though about the geometric meaning of the angular solution. Since we are looking at a free atom, and in the beginning choose an arbitrary angular orientation of our coordinate system, I would assume that the probability of finding an electron (in whatever excited state) at a particular point in space should be independent of $\theta$ and $\phi$. However, from what I understand this is only true for $s$ orbitals $(l=0)$ and for all orbitals of higher angular momentum number ($l>0$) $\theta$ and $\phi$ play a role.
Can somebody help me to understand? Thanks a lot!