I've been studying the philosophical foundations of quantum mechanics and would love to find out if my understanding is correct. Could anyone please let me know if the below description is accurate? If not accurate, could you please explain why without any math at all?
Here is what I think but not sure if correct:
In creating quantum mechanics, Schrodinger modified the classical equation of Newton's second law. In the classical equation, Schrodinger replaced the exactly determinable values for the complementary variables position and momentum with probability distributions contracting or expanding according to the uncertainty principle, representing decreasing or increasing clouds of uncertainty in one’s ability to deterministically predict either position or momentum. In Schrodinger's wave equation, the probability distributions representing clouds of uncertainty or indeterminacy are called wave functions. This is another way of stating that Schrodinger's wave equation is solvable for the wave functions instead of being solvable for the precisely determinable variables of classical physics.
Is the above accurate or not? Your help is much appreciated.