I have a basic question about projective representations in quantum mechanics. In projective representation we identify the class of normalized states in Hilbert space as the same physical state as follows :
\begin{equation} \psi_1\sim \psi_2~~~iff~~~\psi_1=e^{i\lambda}\psi_2,~~~\lambda\in\mathbb{R} \end{equation}
to make sure that both $\psi_1$ and $\psi_2$ satisfy Schrodinger equation, $\lambda$ have to be just a number and not a real function. This is how I understood the projective representation.
On the other hand, there is a natural metric over the finite dimensional Hilbert states which is Fubini-Study metric as follows:
\begin{equation} ds^2=\frac{(\bar\psi.\psi)d\psi.d\bar\psi-(\bar\psi.d\psi)(\psi.d\bar\psi)}{(\bar\psi.\psi)^2} \end{equation}
where $\bar\psi.\psi=\bar\psi_i\psi_i$ is the usual inner product. We can check directly that the curve $$\psi(t)=e^{if(t)}\psi(t=0)$$ for some function $f(t)$ and normalized states ($\bar\psi(t=0).\psi(t=0)=1$) satisfy the null distance condition : \begin{equation} ds^2=0 \end{equation}
and the distance between $\psi(t)$ and $\psi(t=0)$ is zero and we should conclude that these states are the same physical state and indeed the same point in the Fubini-Study metric.
My question is as follows: how are the states $\psi$ and $e^{if(t)}\psi$ the same physical state when they are not both the solution of Schrodinger equation simultaneously unless $f(t)$ would be a constant function?