I am having some difficulties understanding the "adiabatic elimination" in the context of atomic physics. In particular, consider a three-level system with states labeled by $|g_1\rangle$, $|g_2\rangle$ and $|e\rangle$ coupled to a classical electromagnetic field which stimulates the transitions $|g_1\rangle \leftrightarrow |e\rangle$ and $|g_2\rangle \leftrightarrow |e\rangle$. After some work, we can write the Hamiltonian in the rotating wave approximation and in a suitable frame of reference where it is time independent as $$ H = \left( \begin{array}{ccc} \delta\omega_1 - \Delta & 0 & \Omega_1 \\ 0 & \delta\omega_2 - \Delta & \Omega_2 \\ \Omega_1 & \Omega_2 & -\Delta \end{array} \right), $$ where $\delta\omega_i$ are the field detunings, $\Omega_i$ the Rabi couplings and $\Delta = (\delta\omega_1+\delta\omega_2)/2$. The basis that I have used is $\{|g_1\rangle, |g_2\rangle, |e\rangle\}$. Now this leads to a Schrodinger equation for the state $\psi_{g_1}|g_1\rangle+\psi_{g_2}|g_2\rangle + \psi_e|e\rangle$ that, for what concerns the $|e\rangle$ component of the state, reads $$ i\partial_t \psi_{e} = -\Delta \psi_e + \Omega_1 \psi_{g_1} + \Omega_2 \psi_{g_2}. $$
So far so good, but now here's my problem: the typical assumption to obtain an effective two-level dynamics from here is to set $\partial_t\psi_e=0$, which is called adiabatic elimination and apparently it holds under the assumption $\delta \omega_1 \approx \delta\omega_2$ (or similarly $|\delta\omega_i-\Delta| \ll \Delta$). However I totally don't understand why we can set $\partial_t\psi_e=0$. I understand that we are interested in slow dynamics and we want to get rid of fast oscillations; but how does this lead to $\partial_t\psi_e=0$? Can anyone please explain this subtle point to me?