In Mandl & Shaw's Quantum Field Theory (2nd edition p217), the radiative correction for the electron self-energy is:
$$ e_0^2 \Sigma(p) = \frac{\tilde{e_0}^2}{16\pi^2} (p\!\!/ -4m) \left(\frac{2}{\eta}-\gamma + \ln 4\pi\right) + e_0^2 \Sigma_c(p) $$ with $$ 16\pi^2 \Sigma_c(p) = (2m - p\!\!/) - 2\int_0^1 dz \left[p\!\!/(1-z) -2m\right] \ln \frac{m^2z -p^2 z(1-z)}{\mu^2} . $$
$\mu$ is here a mass term appearing during dimensional regularisation but is unphysical and should not be in the final result. In the book, it is said that there is no radiative correction for the external lines: $\Sigma_c( p\!\!/ = m) =0 $.
From this condition, I obtain that $\mu = e^{-2/3}m$, which means that $$ 16\pi^2 \Sigma_c(p) = (2m - p\!\!/) - \frac{4}{3}\int_0^1 dz \left[p\!\!/(1-z) -2m\right] \ln \left(z -z(1-z)\frac{p^2}{m^2}\right) . $$
Is this correct?
I am not sure that the condition $\Sigma_c( p\!\!/ = m) =0 $ is correct. As $\frac{\tilde{e_0}^2}{16\pi^2} (p\!\!/ -4m) \left(-\gamma + \ln 4\pi\right)$ is also finite, is it $\Sigma_c( p\!\!/ = m)+ \frac{\tilde{e_0}^2}{16\pi^2} (p\!\!/ -4m) \left(-\gamma + \ln 4\pi\right) =0$ instead?