I do not clearly understand some concepts, so maybe someone will clarify this for me.
Imagine we have a random wavefunction for an electron, it could be anything.
How can I with known wave function calculate the value of spin of electron? I mean I know that we cannot exactly know with 100% would it be spin up or spin down, but which steps should be made to calculate the probabilities?
Or maybe I am misunderstanding, and that the wavefunction of an electron must always be in the form of $|\psi\rangle=c_1|\psi_{1_{spin up}}\rangle + c_2|\psi_{2_{spin down}}\rangle$? If yes, I know that probabilities of spin up and down is just ${c_1}^2$ and ${c_2}^2$ respectively.
But what if wave function would be different (not necessarily identical to the following equation, but of a different form)? For example, the normalized wavefunction of a particle in an infinite square well.
$$\psi_n\left(z\right) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{L_z}}\sin{\frac{n\pi z}{L_z}}$$