Suppose $\phi(x)$ is a real Klein-Gordon field, then the single-particle wave function $\psi(x)$ corresponding to a momentum $p$ is given by (QFT, Ryder) $$\psi_p(x)=\langle0|\phi(x)|p\rangle.$$ The calculated result is just as expected ($e^{-ipx}$). But is this by definition or does it come from somewhere else?
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