I derived the relativistic Binet-equation for a particle of charge $q$ subject to electromagnetic interaction due to a fixd point charge $Q$ ($Qq>0$) held at the origin. Let $u=1/r$. The result I got is $$\frac{d^2u}{d\theta^2}+u=-\frac{m\gamma}{L^2}\frac{dV}{du}$$ where $V(u)=Qqu$ (I work in CGS units) and in my case of interest (that is, scattering of a particle with a given initial velocity $v_0$ and impact parameter $b$) $L=m\gamma_0bv_0$. Using conservation of energy $E=m\gamma_0c^2=m\gamma c^2+V(u)$ and rearranging, we can write the equation as $$\frac{d^2u}{d\theta^2}+u\left(1-\left(\frac{Qq}{Lc}\right)^2\right)=-\frac{QqE}{L^2c^2}$$ Now what I am struggling with: Let's say I want to get the non-relativistic limit from this equation, that is $\gamma \simeq 1$ at all times. If we write the velocity of the particle in polar coordinates and use conservation of angular momentum I get $$\gamma=\sqrt{1+\left(\frac{L}{mc}\right)^2\left(\left(\frac{du}{d\theta}\right)^2+u^2\right)}$$
Now, by dimensional analysis on the relevant quantities $u(\theta) \propto \frac{QqE}{L^2c^2}$ so I get the following condition for the non-relativistic limit to hold at all times: $Lc>>Qq$ ($E \simeq mc^2$ in the non relativistic limit). What I am struggling to understand is $1)$ where I could have got this same condition working in the Newtonian frame and $2)$ what happens if the angular momentum is really small due to a very low initial velocity. In particular, what I am struggling to understand is how the case in which the initial angular momentum is very small ($Qq/Lc>1$) is linked to the Newtonian limit of this equation. Surely if the angular momentum is small because the initial velocity is, then in the subsequent motion the velocity will be at most equal to the initial one so we are always in the non relativistic regime. So how can I deal with the fact that in the second equation, for very small angular momentum, I get a totally different solution from the one obtained in the non relativistic regime by putting $\gamma \simeq 1$?
For other comments, I've already looked up the link Mercury's Orbital Precession in Special Relativity and they assume implicitly the condition $Lc>Qq$.