Consider two isolated, spherical, conducting shells: one carrying charge $+Q$ and the other $-Q$. The electrostatic potential just outside the surface of a conductor (which equals the conductor’s potential) is given by:
$$
V(a) = -\int_{\infty}^{a} \vec{E} \cdot d\vec{l},
$$
where $a$ is the radius of the spherical conductor.
Now, imagine placing a conducting path between the two spheres. The positive sphere has an outward-directed electric field, and the negative sphere has an inward-directed field. When connected, the field from the $+Q$ sphere attracts electrons, and the field from the $-Q$sphere seems to "repel" them.
Here’s where my confusion arises:
The electric field near the negatively charged conductor is produced by its own excess electrons. How, then, can this same field act on those charges to push them around? In the case of the positive sphere, it's easy to imagine its field attracting negative charges from elsewhere. But in the negative sphere's case, it feels paradoxical to say that the field generated by the charges is also acting on them. This seems like self-interaction, which classical electrodynamics usually avoids.
In case also of the potential, it's the same thing like the field , where that same field is the one that created the potential already so it's the same point
Question:
How is it correct to describe the field of a negatively charged conductor as “repelling” its own surface charges? Doesn’t this imply that a charge is affected by the field it itself generates, which seems physically inconsistent?