I want to address a confusion that has arisen in certain questions of mine on this site, which you can find "here" and "here".
My confusion is related to the transformation under Lorentz of an operator $O$ defined on the Hilbert space of states $\mathcal{H}$, $O\in \mathcal{B(H)}$. Because Lorentz transformation are a symmetry of space-time, by "Wigner's theorem", they are represented on $\mathcal{H}$ by a unitary or anti-unitary operator. Consider now how the operator $O$ transform under such a unitary representation of Lorentz; if my understanding is correct, "this post" gives the transformation as
\begin{equation}\tag{1} O\mapsto U(\Lambda)OU^\dagger(\Lambda), \end{equation}
where $U(\Lambda)\equiv U(g(\Lambda,0)),\:g\in ISO(3,1),$ is the unitary representation of $\Lambda$ on $\mathcal{H}$. Let us now consider a quantized vector field $\hat{A}\,^{\mu}(x)$. One should then have, in view of (1), that
\begin{equation}\tag{2} U(\Lambda)\hat{A}\,^{\mu}(x')U^\dagger(\Lambda) = \Lambda^\mu_{\,\nu}A^\nu(x). \end{equation}
Using (2), I want to verify
\begin{equation}\tag{3} U(\Lambda_1\Lambda_2)\hat{A}\,^{\mu}(x')U^\dagger(\Lambda_1\Lambda_2)= (\Lambda_1 \Lambda_2)^\mu_{\,\nu}\hat{A}\,^{\nu}(x), \end{equation}
which should hold due to $U(\Lambda)$ being a representation of the Lorentz group. Let me now introduce the following identities which I will use later on;
\begin{equation}\tag{4} U^\dagger(\Lambda_1\Lambda_2)=U(g^{-1}(\Lambda_1\Lambda_2,0))=U(g(\Lambda_2^{-1}\Lambda_1^{-1},0)) = U(\Lambda_2^{-1})U(\Lambda_1^{-1}) = U^\dagger(\Lambda_2)U^\dagger(\Lambda_1). \end{equation}
Using (2) and (4) into the LHS of (3) one obtains
\begin{equation}\tag{5} U(\Lambda_1\Lambda_2)\hat{A}\,^{\mu}(x')U^\dagger(\Lambda_1\Lambda_2)= U(\Lambda_1)\left(U(\Lambda_2)\hat{A}\,^{\mu}(x')U^\dagger(\Lambda_2)\right)U^\dagger(\Lambda_1). \end{equation}
Using (2) for the term inside the parenthesis
\begin{equation}\tag{6} U(\Lambda_1\Lambda_2)\hat{A}\,^{\mu}(x')U^\dagger(\Lambda_1\Lambda_2)= U(\Lambda_1)\Lambda^{\mu}_{2\,\nu}\hat{A}\,^{\nu}(x)U^\dagger(\Lambda_1). \end{equation}
$\Lambda^{\mu}_{2\,\nu}$ are numbers, so we can commute them past $U(\Lambda_1)$, and obtain
\begin{equation}\tag{7} U(\Lambda_1\Lambda_2)\hat{A}\,^{\mu}(x')U^\dagger(\Lambda_1\Lambda_2)=\Lambda^{\mu}_{2\,\nu}\left(U(\Lambda_1)\hat{A}\,^{\nu}(x)U^\dagger(\Lambda_1)\right) \end{equation}
Finally, using (2) for the term in parenthesis, one gets
\begin{equation}\tag{8} U(\Lambda_1\Lambda_2)\hat{A}\,^{\mu}(x')U^\dagger(\Lambda_1\Lambda_2) = (\Lambda_2\Lambda_1)^{\mu}_{\,\sigma}\hat{A}\,^{\sigma}(x), \end{equation}
where I used that $\Lambda^\mu_{2\,\nu}\Lambda^\nu_{1\,\sigma}=(\Lambda_2\Lambda_1)^\mu_{\,\sigma}$.
This result doesn't match (3), thus it would seem it is incorrect. When doing the same computation with the transformation (1) rewritten as $U^\dagger(\Lambda)OU(\Lambda)$, I obtain a coherent result with the representation properties. Here is my question; how to correctly transform an operator acting on $\mathcal{H}$ under the Lorentz group? Should it be (1), or the modified version I just gave above?