Consider a vector field $A^\mu(x)$. Its Lorentz transformation is given by
\begin{equation}\tag{1} A'^{\mu}(x') = \Lambda^\mu_{\:\nu}\,A^\nu(x), \end{equation}
where $x'\equiv x'^\mu = \Lambda^\mu_{\:\nu}\, x^\nu$. After quantization, the vector field is now an operator acting on the Hilbert space of states ($\equiv \mathcal{H}$), and its transformations under Lorentz is no longer given by (1), but by
\begin{equation}\tag{2} U^\dagger(\Lambda) \widehat{A}^\mu(x') U(\Lambda) = \Lambda^\mu_{\:\nu}\,\widehat{A}^\nu(x), \end{equation}
where $U(\Lambda)$ is a unitary representation of the Lorentz transformation $\Lambda$ on $\mathcal{H}$. Here is my question; the RHS mixes $\Lambda^\mu_{\:\nu}$ and $A^\nu$. Respectively, the first object is a Lorentz transformation but not represented on $\mathcal{H}$, and the second one is an operator acting on elements of $\mathcal{H}$. How to reconcile the two pictures?
Indeed, when writing down the exponential forms of the transformations, one has; $\Lambda = \exp(-i\omega_{\mu\nu}\mathcal{J}^{\mu\nu}/2)$, the defining representation of the Lorentz group, and $U(\Lambda) = \exp(-i\omega_{\mu\nu}J^{\mu\nu}/2)$, where $J$ now is an operator on $\mathcal{H}$. So it seems we have two different representations of the Lorentz group, which I don't see how it makes sense.