In this review article on objective collapse theories, which is also linked from this Phys.SE post, at least in the part I've read so far, a deal of fuss seems to be made about the fact that we don't observe macroscopic objects in superpositions of position states, for example, we don't see a chair as being both here and there simultaneously -- and that this is a key motivation for adopting the objective collapse paradigm.
But I'm wondering just how significant this concern really is. In particular, even if we start with a mere hydrogen atom, then isn't it correct to say that, according to any established quantum theory up to and including the standard model, the atom exists in a bound state in which, despite the proton and electron being entangled, the vast majority of the probability over their joint positions is concentrated in an extremely small region of space? So shouldn't we expect any macroscopic object made of atoms to follow this same pattern? In fact, since the size of the object is now many orders of magnitude greater than the characteristic decay scale of a single atomic wavefunction, I should think the approximation to an entity with infinitely sharp boundaries would be even more appropriate.
That is, the macroscopic object is in superposition, but its wavefunction is so extremely concentrated in one demarcated region that we aren't sensitive enough to perceive any activity outside that region. Or, is it true that the wavefunction of a macroscopic object would tend to disperse over time like that of a single free electron, in which case the argument in the article is valid?
I'm actually not at all opposed to the notion of objective collapse in general, though perhaps I just don't know enough to refute it, but I was just skeptical whether the superposition line of reasoning was really justified.