Some questions have been asked on this site [1] [2] about causality violation in relativistic quantum mechanics of a single particle (RQM) vs quantum field theory (QFT), but I have a very specific question that builds off these. In a nutshell: It seems like certain causality-violating observables in RQM (to be described) are still present in QFT, in principle—so do we have to reject these observables by fiat as a basic assumption of QFT?
Let's consider the QFT of a free real scalar field. One way to construct (or think about) such a theory is as the second-quantized theory of a single relativistic particle. The single-particle Hilbert space $\mathcal H$ is the usual $L^2(\mathbb R^3)$, and the Hamiltonian in momentum space is just multiplication by $\sqrt{|\textbf{p}|^2+m^2}$; the corresponding QFT has the symmetric Fock space $\mathcal F_s(\mathcal H)$ as its Hilbert space and the canonically induced Hamiltonian on this Fock space. (See, e.g., chapter 5 of Talagrand's What is a QFT for more on this approach to scalar QFT and its equivalence to the standard approach.)
The single-particle theory described above famously has problems with causality. Following the description on p. 157–8 in Nik Weaver's Mathematical Quantization, let $K_1$ and $K_2$ be compact regions of space that are distant from each other, let $P_1$ denote the orthogonal projector onto the subspace $L^2(K_1)$ at $t = 0$, and let $P_2$ denote the projector onto $L^2(K_2)$ at time $t = t_0$ (Heisenberg picture), where $t_0$ is very small so that light cannot propagate between $K_1$ and $K_2$ in this time. Then (as Weaver argues quite rigorously) $P_1$ and $P_2$ cannot commute, which violates causality in the sense that this non-commutation could be exploited for superluminal signaling.
Somehow QFT is supposed to resolve this issue, and the microlocality condition "$[\phi(x),\phi(y)] = 0$ if $x$ and $y$ are spacelike separated" is cited as justification. My question is, don't (canonical extensions of) $P_1$ and $P_2$ still exist on the Fock space, projecting down to the one-particle sector? Aren't they still non-commuting, leading to a causality violation? Is QFT's "solution" to this problem just to forbid measurements corresponding to these operators, instead insisting on observables that can be built from the operator fields? This seems to me like the only possible conclusion, but at the same time extremely weird, because $P_1$ and $P_2$ are perfectly well defined (even bounded) self-adjoint operators on the Fock space.