Edit: Based on @WillO's very relevant comment, I want to clarify what I mean by "fully governed by QM" - it means governed only by the laws of quantum mechanics, as opposed to classical physics. It effectively means "if classical systems don't exist in the universe".
If those logical steps below are correct, it would seem to me that saying "The universe is fully governed by QM, and only by QM" and saying "MWI is correct" both have to have the same answer - either both are true, or both are false.
Is that statement correct?
From what I understood, MWI says the following:
- The universe is fully governed by QM, and only by QM.
- This means it is described by a universe-sized quantum wavefunction which evolves according to the Schroedinger equation.
- The universal wavefunction contains the universe, and the universe contains everything that exists.
- This means that nothing exists outside of the quantum wavefunction to observe it.
- This means the quantum system can never collapse, and remains in a pure state forever.
- The universe is an ordinary quantum system capable of superposition.
- Superposition is where the so called "many worlds" would come from.
Now, as far as I understand, the Coppenhaggen Interpretation says the following:
- Universe is partitioned between classical systems governed by classical physical laws, and quantum systems governed by QM.
- At the boundary between microscopic and macroscopic scales, systems "switch" which set of physical laws governs them.
- Collapse happens when classical and quantum systems interact.
So, to repeat the question - if the universe is fully governed by QM, and only by QM, does that necessitate that MWI is correct? If MWI is incorrect, does that imply that the universe cannot be governed only by QM?