I more or less understand the complications and difficulties in combining the two theories, but what confuses me is why physicists have assumed that this combination makes sense in the first place.
It is not obvious to me, given the evidence that we have, that the two theories can be combined at all. It seems that the two are completely separate systems working in tandem.
Is there a critical piece of evidence that hints that the two can be combined? To me, it seems that we have assumed that this is possible without reason.
I haven't been able to find any justification for this decision, so any feedback is appreciated.
