In a previous question I asked, I was confused about how can you refuse determinism/realism in Bell's theorem without also refusing relativistic locality. I would like to understand where my following argument goes wrong.
Suppose that a physical theory is able to assign probabilities to events in space-time. The interesting thing that can happen is when two events $A$ and $B$ have related statistical distributions: $P(A) = f(P(B))$. If the function $f$ is invertible, then the events have a perfect statistical correlation.
Empirical science is built around the idea that we can explain correlations between events by means of "causes", by freely choosing an action $X$ to perform on a system $A$ we see if $P(A) = f(P(X))$ and deduce that $X$ has caused the outcomes. In a local theory, such causes (should they exist) are all in the past light-cone of $A$.
When Alice and Bob share an entangled state over space-like distances, and Alice freely chooses to orient the magnet at some angle, quantum mechanics predicts correlation that couldn't have possibly be caused by anything in the past light-cone of Alice and Bob.
Still, the outcome distribution that Bob sees is a function of how Alice freely chooses to orient the magnet, and this is normally considered a causal effect all over science. The fact that we can't observe it doesn't change this, so how exactly does giving up realism/determinism make everything local?