Relation between Feynman diagrams and the effective action

Asked Jul 21 '22 at 14:05

Active Jul 21 '22 at 14:14

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I have learned that the effective action can be obtained from legendre transforming the generating function $$W(J) = \ln(Z(J)),$$ which corresponds to connected graphs. However I don't quite get an idea of why effective action corresponds to one-particle-irreducible (1PI) graphs.

edited Jul 21 '22 at 14:14

Qmechanic

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asked Jul 21 '22 at 14:05

JinH

Relation between Feynman diagrams and the effective action

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