Consider the Hamiltonian
\begin{equation} H = a^\dagger a + c^\dagger c + \text{i} \xi \left( a^\dagger - a \right) \left( c + c^\dagger \right), \end{equation}
where $a$ and $c$ are bosonic annihilation operators obeying $[a,a^\dagger]=1$, $[c,c^\dagger]=1$ and $[a,c^\dagger]=0$, and $\xi>0$. The normal mode operator can be found by means of a Bogoliubov transformation, generically written as $\beta = \boldsymbol{\Gamma} \cdot \boldsymbol{\psi}$, where $\boldsymbol{\Gamma} = \left( a, c, a^\dagger, c^\dagger \right)$ and $\boldsymbol{\psi}$ is a vector of coefficients. The normal mode operator obeys the Heisenberg equation of motion $[\beta,H] = \omega \beta$. This leads to the matrix equation $\mathbf{M} \boldsymbol{\psi} = \omega \boldsymbol{\psi}$ where the Hopfield matrix [1] is
\begin{equation} \mathbf{M} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & -\text{i} \xi & 0 & \text{i} \xi \\ \text{i} \xi & 1 & \text{i} \xi & 0 \\ 0 & \text{i} \xi & -1 & -\text{i} \xi \\ \text{i} \xi & 0 & \text{i} \xi & -1\\ \end{pmatrix}. \end{equation}
The eigenvalues are obtained from the equation $\text{det}(\mathbf{M}-\omega)=0$, giving
\begin{equation} \omega = \sqrt{1 \pm 2\xi}. \end{equation}
Thus, for $\xi>1/2$ the Hamiltonian gives an imaginary frequency. I don't understand what it means to have an imaginary oscillation frequency. How is this possible? What does it mean? What is the physical intuition? Any further reading appreciated. The physical system I am interested in, is polaritons that arise due to strong light-matter coupling, where this method is used to calculate the dispersion of polaritons. So I find the possibility of an imaginary dispersion very puzzling.