I am reading chapter 3 of Quantum Mechanics - A Modern Development by Leslie E Ballentine, where he derives the operators for the common dynamical variables from space-time symmetry considerations.
At the start, he states that for each space-time transformation there must be a transformation of observables, $A \to A'$, and of states, $|\Psi\rangle \to |\Psi'\rangle$, following certain relations:
If $A|\phi_n\rangle = a_n|\phi_n\rangle$, then $A'|\phi'_n\rangle = a_n|\phi'_n\rangle$.
$|\psi\rangle = \sum_n c_n|\phi_n\rangle \to |\psi'\rangle = \sum_n c'_n|\phi'_n\rangle$, where $\left\{|\phi_n\rangle\right\}$ and $\left\{|\phi'_n\rangle\right\}$ are the eigenvectors of $A$ and $A'$ respectively. The two state vectors must obey $|c_n|^2 = |c_n'|^2$; that is, $|\langle\phi_n|\psi\rangle|^2 = |\langle\phi'_n|\psi'\rangle|^2$.
He then continues with Wigner's theorem, and so on. My issues begin with point 1. For some operators and transformations this makes intuitive sense to me, but not for others. Take for example the position operator $Q$ and a space translation $\mathbf x \to \mathbf x' = \mathbf x + \mathbf a$. If a particle was localized about $\mathbf x$ before the translation, it would be localized about $\mathbf x' = \mathbf x + \mathbf a$ after it. How does that correspond to
$$Q'|\mathbf x'\rangle = \mathbf x |\mathbf x'\rangle,$$
as implied by point 1 above? (Now, I know $|\mathbf x\rangle$ does not represent a particle at $\mathbf x$, but still.) My intuition would instead tell me that $Q'|\mathbf x'\rangle = \mathbf x' |\mathbf x'\rangle$, so apparently I am missing something.