Renormalization: Why is only a finite number of counterterms allowed?

Question

I have a question about renormalization in QFT. Why does a renormalizable theory require only a finite number of counterterms?

score 5 · Answer 1 · answered Mar 13 '13 at 18:36

5

The necessity of a finite number of counterterms to cancel all divergences is often taken as the definition of renormalizability. See for example this page in Coleman's Aspects of Symmetry.

answered Mar 13 '13 at 18:36

joshphysics

58,991

Renormalization: Why is only a finite number of counterterms allowed?

1 Answers1