I have been told by many lecturers and many books that in the Schwarzschild metric
$$ ds^2=-\left(1-\frac{r_s}{r}\right)dt^2 + \left(1-\frac{r_s}{r}\right)^{-1} dr^2 + r^2 d\Omega ^2 $$
the singularity at $r=r_s$ purely comes from the bad choice of coordinate and that there is no physical singularity there.
I got really confused up to this point because I have also been told that in a black hole, the surface $r=r_s$ is called the event horizon and nothing can pass through it.
If this singularity purely comes from the bad choice of coordinate and not a physical one, how can we perceive the existence of this event horizon? They even tried to make analogy to the polar coordinate where the azimutal angle $\phi$ is ill defined at the poles . I can see that these ill-defined points purely come from the poor choice of coordinate since every point on the sphere are equal (due to spherical symmetric). The situation in the black hole case is clearly different from the sphere analogy.
So, the question is, if the singularity at $r=r_s$ is not a physical one (just simply a bad coordinate), how can we justify the exitence of the event horizon that never led anything to cross it?