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I've often just assumed

$$\langle x|p\rangle = \frac{1}{(2\pi\hbar)^{1/2}}e^{ipx/\hbar}$$

Is there a formal way to prove this?

My guess is that, since $\langle x|x'\rangle = \delta(x'-x)$, and a summation of wavepackets is essentially a delta function, we can prove the result starting from the definition of the delta function.

SuperCiocia
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jtl2164
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