I am having trouble grasping the projection operators in the context of composite spins system, e.g. with two spin-1. First off, a projector $P$ is said to be an operator that squares to itself, $P^2=P$. With that, its eigenvalue is either 0 or 1. Are these properties, $P^2=P$ and $\text{Eigenvalues}(P)=\{1,0\}$, only true in a certain representation?
Edit: The answer to the above question is no and that indeed those properties hold for both of the representations. What I did below has a mistake. Thanks to Mane.andrea for doing a consistency check also in Mathematica. It turns out I had it wrong when I wrote $M^2$, instead of $M.M$, where $M$ is the matrix form of $(\vec{s}_1 \cdot \vec{s}_2)$.
Consider a two-spin-1 system, the projector onto the subspace whose total spin is equal to 2 is:
$$P_2 = \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{2} (\vec{s}_1\cdot \vec{s}_2 ) + \frac{1}{6} (\vec{s}_1 \cdot \vec{s}_2)^2$$
where $\vec{s}_1$ be the spin operator for the first spin-1 and $\vec{s}_2$ for the second. Hence, when $P_2$ acts on a state with a total spin of 2, the eigenvalue is 1, otherwise, the eigenvalue is 0. (A post on detailed derivation)
Let us write the states in the composite system as $|J,M_z^J \rangle_c$, i.e. given the total spin operator $\vec{S} = \vec{s}_1 + \vec{s}_2$, we have (set $\hbar=1$)
$$S^2 |J,M^J_z \rangle_c = J(J+1)|J,M^J_z \rangle_c,$$ $$S_z|J,M^J_z \rangle_c = M^J_z |J,M^J_z \rangle_c.$$
Meanwhile, the spin-1 states simply as $|m_z \rangle$, such that
$$s^2|m_z \rangle = 2|m_z \rangle, \qquad s_z|m_z\rangle = m_z|m_z \rangle.$$
Let me list the states with a total spin $J=2$:
$$|2,2 \rangle_c = |1,1 \rangle,$$ $$|2,1 \rangle_c = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \big( |0,1 \rangle + |1,0 \rangle \big),$$ $$|2,0 \rangle_c = \frac{1}{\sqrt{6}} \big( |-1,1 \rangle + 2|0,0 \rangle + |1,-1 \rangle \big),$$ $$|2,-1 \rangle_c = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \big( |0,-1 \rangle + |-1,0 \rangle \big),$$ $$|2,-2 \rangle_c = |-1,-1 \rangle.$$
I expect then that the action of $P_2$ on these states will be $P_2|2,M^2_z\rangle_c = |2,M^2_z\rangle_c$, i.e. eigenvalue is 1. This is true except for $|2,0\rangle_c:$
$ P_2 |2,0\rangle_c = \bigg( \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{2} (\vec{s}_1\cdot \vec{s}_2 ) + \frac{1}{6} (\vec{s}_1 \cdot \vec{s}_2)^2 \bigg)\bigg(\frac{1}{\sqrt{6}} \big( |-1,1 \rangle + 2|0,0 \rangle + |1,-1 \rangle \big) \bigg) $ $ \qquad \qquad = (\frac{2}{3})^{1/2} \big( \frac{2}{3} |1,-1\rangle + |0,0\rangle + \frac{2}{3} |-1,1 \rangle \big) \neq |2,0 \rangle_c $
Moreover, $P_2$ does not square to itself. I will not show it here, but $P_2$ does not have an eigenvalue of 0 when it acts on $|1,1\rangle_c, |1,-1 \rangle_c, |0,0\rangle_c$.
Are the statements $(P_2)^2=P_2$ and Eigenvalues($P_2)=\{1,0\}$ true only on a certain representation? This is what I can potentially conclude from my endeavor above, but I would really appreciate additional insights and suggested readings because what I have written above is how deep my understanding of this subject goes.
Added: So I know that I can just write $P_2$ as
$$P_2 = \sum_{M_Z=-2}^2 |2,M_Z \rangle_c \langle 2, M_Z|_c, $$
so it is straightforward that $P_2^2 = P_2$ and $\text{Eigenvalues}(P_2)=\{1,0\}$. This is in a single-spin representation (treating the two spin-1 as a single spin; with subscipt "c" above), and the properties is true. In the two-spin representation, $P_2$ is ($\frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{2} (\vec{s}_1\cdot \vec{s}_2 ) + \frac{1}{6} (\vec{s}_1 \cdot \vec{s}_2)^2)$ while the states with total spin of 2 are what I listed above (the right-hand-side terms).
The problem is in the two-spin representation, the eigenvalue of $P_2$ is not 1 when acted on state $|2,0\rangle_c$ and $P_2$ does not annihilate all states orthogonal to states of total spin equals 2.