Let's consider $\left| \Psi \right> $ some state of quantum system.
Let's also consider some Hermitian Operator $\hat{Q}$, with the discrete specrum: $$ \hat{Q}\left| Q_n \right> = Q_n\left| Q_n \right>. $$
Now, if one try to mearure some physical quantity $\hat{Q}$ in non eigenstate $\left| \Psi \right> $, the result should be one of the eigenstates of $\hat{Q}$, say $\left| Q_n \right> $.
$$
\hat{Q}\left| \Psi \right> = Q_n\left| Q_n \right>.
$$
Thus, we observe what called wave function collapse:
$$
\left| \Psi\right> \xrightarrow{\text{collapse}} \left| Q_n \right>.
$$
As described in literature, the definition of an operator is $$ \hat{Q}\left|\Psi\right> = \left|\Phi\right>, $$ the thing that convert one state vector $\left|\Psi\right>$ to another $\left|\Phi\right>$. I had never met that for the Hermitian Operator acting to non eigenstate gives the operator's eigenstate.
So, is the equation $\hat{Q}\left| \Psi \right> = Q_n\left| Q_n \right>$ mathematically correct?
Or, from another point of view, Does it correct to say The Hermitian Operator Reduce the Noneigenstate State to the Self Eigenstate?