The Vaidya Metric is the metric that can be used to describe the spacetime geometry of a varying mass black hole. This metric reads $$d\tau^2=\bigg(1-\dfrac{2M(\nu)}{r}\bigg)d\nu^2+2d\nu dr - r^2 d\Omega_2^2$$ For simplicity, I will assume $d\Omega_2=0$. Now, the condition for any interval to be spacelike can be read-off from this metric as $$\dfrac{dr}{d\nu}<-\dfrac{1}{2}\bigg(1-\dfrac{2M(\nu)}{r}\bigg)\tag{1}$$ Now, suppose that the trajectory of a particle (which, of course, is supposed to be either a lightlike or a timelike trajectory) connects two events--one outside the horizon and one inside the horizon. Also, let's take these events to be very close to the horizon. Then, the coordinates of these events can be taken as $$\Big(\nu, 2M(\nu)+ \delta \xi_{o}\Big)$$ and $$\Big(\nu+d\nu, 2M(\nu+d\nu)-\delta\xi_{i}\Big)$$ where $\delta\xi_{i}$ and $\delta\xi_{o}$ are infinitesimally small parameters that we can change to make the chosen events as close to the horizon as we wish.
Now, for the pair of these two events
$$\dfrac{dr}{d\nu}=\dfrac{2M(\nu+d\nu)-\delta\xi_{i}-2M(\nu)-\delta\xi_{o}}{d\nu}=2\dot{M}(\nu)-\bigg(\dfrac{\delta\xi_{i}+\delta\xi_{o}}{d\nu}\bigg)\tag{2}$$
Combining $(1)$ and $(2)$, we get that our stipulation that a particle connects the considered two events can be true only if
$$2\dot{M}(\nu)-\bigg(\dfrac{\delta\xi_{i}+\delta\xi_{o}}{d\nu}\bigg)\geq-\dfrac{1}{2}\bigg(1-\dfrac{2M(\nu)}{r}\bigg)$$
where $r$ can be taken as $2M(\nu)$ in the limit where we make $\delta\xi_{i}$ and $\delta\xi_{o}$ sufficiently small (as compared to $d\nu$). Thus, we get
$$\dot{M}(\nu)\geq 0$$
Thus, it seems that a particle can fall into the horizon only if the black hole is either not evaporating or is gaining mass. In the case of an evaporating black hole, this calculation seems to suggest that nothing (no timelike or lightlike trajectory) can connect the exterior to the interior. Is this true?
Notice that the conclusion cannot be a result of a bad choice of the coordinates because the argument depends on the value of the generally invariant interval.
I think this is quite a surprising result and thus, I think the probability is that there is some fatal flaw in the logic of the presented argument. I would like the answers to point out the same. Presented this way, it might seem like a "check my work" question but I hope this is not a completely uninteresting and off-topic homework-like check my work question that is supposed to be avoided under the "no check my work question policy".