In QFT, take Klein-Gordon field as axample, the concept of particle is introduced only after making the Fourier transformation
$\phi (\boldsymbol x)=\int \frac{d^3\boldsymbol p}{(2\pi)^3}\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\omega_\boldsymbol p}}(a_\boldsymbol p e^{i\boldsymbol p \cdot \boldsymbol x}+a_\boldsymbol p^\dagger e^{-i\boldsymbol p \cdot \boldsymbol x})$
$\pi (\boldsymbol x)=\int \frac{d^3\boldsymbol p}{(2\pi)^3} (-i)\sqrt{\frac{\omega_\boldsymbol p}{2}} (a_\boldsymbol p e^{i\boldsymbol p \cdot \boldsymbol x}-a_\boldsymbol p^\dagger e^{-i\boldsymbol p \cdot \boldsymbol x})$
and find that the energy and momentum operator are diagonal in $(a_\boldsymbol p^\dagger,a_\boldsymbol p)$:
$H=\int \frac{d^3\boldsymbol p}{(2\pi)^3}\omega_\boldsymbol p(a_\boldsymbol p^\dagger a_\boldsymbol p+\frac{1}{2})$
$\boldsymbol P=\int \frac{d^3\boldsymbol p}{(2\pi)^3}\boldsymbol p a_\boldsymbol p^\dagger a_\boldsymbol p$
Then (also considering the commutation relations) it is said that $a_\boldsymbol p^\dagger$/$a_\boldsymbol p$ creates/annihilates a particle with energy $\omega_\boldsymbol p$ and momentum $\boldsymbol p$.
However, in a general quantum field, it is not guaranteed that there exists a pair of creation/annihilation operator that can diagonalize the energy or momentum operator. In this case, how to define a "particle" in this quantum field? Is it true that the definition of a particle relies on the particular form of the Hamiltonian, and not all quantum field have the concept of "particle"?
Update:
For example, how to define a particle for a field with a strange Hamiltonian $H=\int d^3x[\pi^4+(\nabla \pi\cdot\nabla\phi)^2+m^2\phi^4]$?