I was reading the discussion here: Why does holding something up cost energy while no work is being done?
I feel as though the question is being avoided.
Suppose instead of holding an object by hand we would attach some machine which burns fuel and converts it to force. This force is equal to mg.
We would like to predict how much fuel is being burnt (how much energy is spent) in order to hold the object for a time of T seconds.
The attached link does not give any clue how one can approach this problem.
Furthermore, and this is what bothers me most, suppose that while the machine holds the object perfectly still someone would miraculously turn off the earth's gravity. The machine still creates a force of mg. Suppose that after time of T seconds the object is at height h (relative to its starting position). Would we then be able to say the amount of energy spent by the machine is mgh? Maybe one would say it depends on how the machine works and how much energy is converted to heat. So suppose the machine has perfect efficiency (equals or very close to 1), i.e. every joule spent by the machine is dedicated to hold the object.
For me it seems the 2 scenarios are exactly alike, since the machine is indifferent to gravity.
Please be the devil's advocate when answering this question :)