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One of the results arising from quantum mechanics is that energy is quantized for a particle. In particular, the translational energy levels are quantized.

  • Is it fair to say that the translational energy levels of a macroscopic object are also quantized, but in such a way that the degree of separation between the energy levels is negligible ?

Additional Information:

My understanding of the translational energy of a particle is that, it can only occupy a discrete set of energy levels.

For example if we were to model the particle moving along the positive part of $x$ axis, its translational energy levels would be more akin to

$$f(x)=\lfloor{x} \rfloor$$ rather than $$f(x)=x$$.

Is this interpretation correct?

Iamat8
  • 411
J.Gudal
  • 141

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