5

In my current understanding, matrix formulation and wave-function formulation of QM are basically the same because $\left|\psi\right>$ and $\psi(x)$ are really the same mathematical object: A vector in the (vector) space of complex functions. My issue with this is the status of $\hat{x}$ and its eigenvectors $\left|x\right>$.

Let’s ask a simple question: What is the dimensionality of the vector space? We can simply write that every vector can be decomposed in a sum of energy eigenstates:

$\left|\psi\right> = \sum E_n\left|n\right>$

Or every vector can be decomposed in a sum of position eigenstates:

$\left|\psi\right> = \int \psi(x)\left|x\right>dx$

In the first case, we have an infinite enumerable basis. In the second case, we have an infinite non-enumerable basis. But they are supposed to be two different orthonormal basis of the same vector space!

Or put another way, how can we write $\psi(x) = \left<\psi|x\right>$ if the set of $\left|x\right>$s is enumerable but the domain of $\psi(x)$ isn’t ?

ACuriousMind
  • 132,081
sloonz
  • 53

1 Answers1

6

Yes, this is something physicists like to sweep under the rug.

$\lvert x \rangle$ as an "eigenvector" of the position operator is not a vector in the physical Hilbert space of states $\mathcal{H}$ - it's not normalizable, for one, as the odd "inner product" $$ \langle x' \vert x \rangle = \delta(x' - x)$$ indicates. To deal with it mathematically, one has to introduce the concept of rigged Hilbert spaces, see also this question and answer. It boils down to the fact that the statement "But they are supposed to be two different orthonormal basis of the same vector space!" is simply false - they are not two bases of the same space.

It's completely non-obvious, but nevertheless surprisingly often true, that one can get away with pretending that the identity on $\mathcal{H}$ can be written as $\int \lvert x \rangle \langle x \rvert \mathrm{d}x$ as if the $\lvert x \rangle$ were a basis of $\mathcal{H}$, when, in fact, the space is separable in all physical cases and has a countable basis $\lvert \psi_i \rangle$ so that the identity is $\sum_{i\in\mathbb{N}}\lvert\psi_i\rangle\langle\psi_i\rvert$. Note that the $\lvert\psi_i\rangle$ are not always energy eigenstates, since the Hamiltonian need not have discrete spectrum (and indeed hasn't for the free states, usually).

ACuriousMind
  • 132,081