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If $r=0$ in the well know equation $F= G\dfrac{m_1\cdot m_2}{r^2}$, it will not follow that the force will be infinite?

May someone please clarify it to me?

Qmechanic
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Voyager
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3 Answers3

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Assuming that $m_1$ and $m_2$ take up a finite amount of space (e.g., two spheres of mass with radius $r_0$), that equation isn't even valid for $r < r_0$, so there's no inconsistency.

The derivation follows from Gauss' law; it is analogous to the application of Gauss' law in electrostatics; the $m_1$ and $m_2$ are the mass enclosed at some distance $r$.

user3814483
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True point masses and other singularities can wreak all kinds of havoc in Newtonian physics. A couple of examples:

Fortunately, true point masses and singularities such as those exhibited by Norton's Dome don't exist in reality.

David Hammen
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Assuming two mass particles, there would be a miniumum r>0 represented by the particles themselves therefore: F= G*(m1*m2)/[r(m1)+r(m2)]^2.

Tim D
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