10

So we know that in Quantum Mechanics we require the operators to be Hermitian, so that their eigenvalues are real ($\in \mathbb{R}$) because they correspond to observables.

What about a non-Hermitian operator which, among the others, also has real ($\mathbb{R}$) eigenvalues? Would they correspond to observables? If no, why not?

Qmechanic
  • 220,844
SuperCiocia
  • 25,602

1 Answers1

4

For Hermitian matrices eigenvectors corresponding to different eigenvalues are orthogonal. This guarantees that not only are the eigenvalues real, expectation values are too.

Robin Ekman
  • 15,017