This question is prompted by a recent one on the topic of prenuptial agreements.
Imagine that Joe and Mary decide on a prenup that states that in case of a divorce Joe gets 90% and Mary 10% of the estate. This split is arguably "unfair" to Mary.
Do they have to state the reasons for such a split? Can such a split exist at all?
There may be many reasons for them wanting to do that: Mary is much more likely to succeed in business, she is an order of magnitude smarter and knows she will win at the lottery, Joe is sick and will need way more support than Mary, ...
Some of these reasons are reasonable, some are silly - but these are their decisions and we assume that both are sane.
To reiterate the introduction questions above:
- can a split be arbitrary despite the "fairness" requirement?
- does the "fairness" need to be explained in the prenup?
The original question was for the US so for the sake of continuity I will tag it as US, but would be interested in France as well.