For a crime to have taken place, does the victim have to consider themselves a victim?
Bob and Sue are colleagues. They both get very drunk at the Xmas office party and have sex in a shop doorway on the way home. They're spotted by a passing police car and arrested for indecent exposure. The both admit their crime and expect a slap-on-the-wrist when it comes to court. They continue in a professional relationship with no ill-will on either side.
Six months later the case is due to come up. Sue realises her name will be published, her husband will find out, her professional reputation will be harmed and she'll likely lose her job. She slightly changes her statement - 'I was drunk, therefore I couldn't give consent, therefore it must have been rape, therefore I have the legal right to anonymity' - this will prevent her name from being published and give her the anonymity she wants
Her original statement hasn't really changed "I got very drunk at the office party, I made a mistake, I had sex with Bob" But by pointing out that she was so drunk she couldn't consent she's upped the charge against Bob to rape.
Sue doesn't actually believe Bob raped her, as far as she's concerned it was mutual mistake. Sue just wants anonymity. Has Sue committed a crime by admitting she was too drunk to consent?