In the ICJ's Iran v. United States case judgment, Khomeini's statement that the militants' actions were "done by our nation" effectively recognized them as state actions. Regarding the legal status of the protesters, the judgment states:
"The militants, authors of the invasion and jailers of the hostages, had now become agents of the Iranian State for whose acts the State itself was internationally responsible."(para.74)
Assume State A recognizes the actions of a non-state actor B as its own. If B violates a certain kind of international law a year later, can that action be attributed to State A? This question relates to the following specific questions:
If a specific act of a non-state actor is recognized by a state as its own, does the non-state actor immediately gain the status of a state organ? Is this a simultaneous legal status change?
Does the status of the non-state actor acquired in persist? For example, if the actor commits another act one year later, is that act also recognized as a state act?
