As everybody here knows, Maxwell's equation would look more beautiful if a magnetig charge were present. Beyond the aesthetics question, if a single magnetic Dirac monopole would be found, the consequence is that the electric charge would be quantized.
While, I guess, everybody should be happy with the news, my experimentalist background doesn't allow me to understand the experimental setting. I therefore ask for the following advice -- a rather theoretically oriented question.
A recent paper,
Observation of Dirac monopoles in a synthetic magnetic field. M. W. Ray, E. Ruokokoski, S. Kandel, M. Möttönen and D. S. Hall. Nature 505, pp. 657–660 (30 January 2014).
claims to have observed such monopoles.
- Can somebody shed light on the theoretical implicacions of this work? Concretely, should we now take care before saying that it's been proven that the electric charge is quantized?