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For a torque-free symmetric top, the Inertia tensor has an inverse $I^{-1}$, and $L=I\omega$. Which implies that $\omega=I^{-1}L$. But since $I, L$ are constants, $\vec\omega$ is a constant. However, $\vec\omega$ precesses. Why is there this paradox in argument?

Qmechanic
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Artemisia
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1 Answers1

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The moment of inertia tensor is not constant in the external reference frame (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Precession#Torque-free )

akhmeteli
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