I am following Blumenhagen & Plauschinn, “Introduction to Conformal Field Theory,” §2.9. For the holomorphic piece of the vertex operator
$$ V_{\alpha}(z,\bar z)=:\!\exp\!\bigl(i\alpha\,X(z,\bar z)\bigr)\!: $$
they write (their eq. (2.93))
$$ \boxed{% V_{\alpha}(z,\bar z)= \underbrace{\exp\!\Bigl(i\alpha x_{0} -\alpha\sum_{n\le -1}\frac{j_{n}}{n}\,z^{-n}\Bigr)}_{\text{left / creation}} \; \underbrace{\exp\!\Bigl(\alpha\pi_{0}\ln z -\alpha\sum_{n\ge 1}\frac{j_{n}}{n}\,z^{-n}\Bigr)}_{\text{right / annihilation}} \;} \tag{2.93} $$
with the mode expansion
$$ X(z)=x_{0}-i\pi_{0}\ln z +i\sum_{n\neq0}\frac{j_{n}}{n}\,z^{-n},\qquad [x_{0},\pi_{0}]=i,\qquad \pi_{0}=\tfrac12\,j_{0}. $$
Question: All oscillator creation modes $j_{-n}\;(n>0)$ are placed to the left of annihilation modes $j_{+n}$. But $x_{0}$ commutes with every $j_{n}$, so naively I could move $e^{i\alpha x_{0}}$ to the right block without changing the operator. So why did they put $x_0$ in the left factor and $\pi_0$ in the right factor? Is it an arbirary choice, is it just a convention followed by everyone, or is there a physical/algebraic reason that forces us make this choice?
Any clarification would be appreciated.