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In relativistic quantum field theory, there is a result saying that if

  1. an operator-valued map $\Phi (x)$ satisfying Poincare covariance is a well-defined operator at any point $x \in \mathbb{R}^4$, and
  2. the vacuum is the only translationally-invariant state,

then $\Phi (x)$ must be a constant operator. Does an equivalent result hold for non-relativistic quantum field theory?

Ishan Deo
  • 2,101

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