The question of how an almost massless 'particle' possesses a clear negative charge (or creates a negative field around itself) has always puzzled me - of course the designation of positive / negative sign is arbitrary. And related is it just a co-incidence that the negative charge of an electron exactly balances the positive charge of a proton? Seems to hint at an underlying cause that makes them equal... Given that the positive charge is composite uud and the negative is presumably unitary.
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