While reading some aspects concerning the conclusion that bodies follow geodesics of spacetime, I ran into relativistic action on p.24 in chapter 2 $\S8$ of the 2nd volume of Landau & Lifshitz: $$S = -\alpha \int_{a}^{b} \, \mathrm ds, \tag{$\ast$} \label{eq:1}$$ where $\alpha$ does represent a positive constant to be determined by comparison with the classical Lagrangian of a free particle (as a side note, the minus sign is essential for the action to have a minimum). My question is: why is integral $\eqref{eq:1}$ minimised with respect to $\mathrm ds$? One clever justification I have read (in Landau & Lifshitz) is that the action must be invariant with respect to Lorentz transformations. The problem is that I don't understand why it is precisely $\mathrm ds$ that has been chosen as scalar.
One possible explanation I tried to give (about whose correctness I am not at all sure) is that, choosing $\mathrm ds$ as scalar and expressing the latter as a function of $\mathrm dt$, and after finding the value of $\alpha$ by comparison with the classical Lagrangian, we obtain the relativistic Lagrangian. Once the latter is derived as a function of velocity, the particle's impulse is obtained. This value could be obtained by other means without involving the Lagrangian and, therefore, retracing the path backwards - and considering the known impulse of the particle - we obtain the action as per $\eqref{eq:1}$. Does what I say make sense or am I wrong and is there a deeper reason?