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It is known that every 2-dimensinal Lorentzian manifold is conformally flat and in general it's not globally conformally flat.

(Here, globally conformally flat means there are a global coordinates system on a (Pseudo-Riemannian) manifold $(M,h)$ and scale function $\Omega:M\to R$ such that $\Omega h$ can be expressed as Minkowski metric in the coordinate.)

Nevertheless, in string theory book, Polyakov action is written globally in conformal gauge as,

$$\tag{1}S=\frac{T}{2}\int d^2\sigma(\dot{X}^2-X'^2)$$

where $T$ is constant, $X:I\times I\to \mathbb{R}^{1,d}$ ($I=[0,1]$ and a Lorentzian metric $h$ is given on $I\times I$) and (I think they suppose) there are $U\subset \mathbb{R}^2$ and a global coordinate system $\varphi :U\to I\times I$ on $I\times I$ and scale function $\Omega:I\times I\to\mathbb{R}$ such that $\Omega h_{\tau\tau}=-1,\, \Omega h_{\tau \sigma}=0,\, \Omega h_{\sigma\sigma}=1 $ with respect to the coordinate system. $\dot{X}^2$ means self inner product of $\partial \tau (X\circ \varphi)$ with respect to the metric of $\mathbb{R}^{1,d}$ and $X'^2$ does so.

At first I think $(1)$ doesn't mean that there is a global coordinates on $I\times I$ such that $h_{\tau\tau}=-1,\, h_{\tau \sigma}=0,\, h_{\sigma\sigma}=1 $ and $(1)$ holds in terms of partition of unity.

That is, there are co­ordinate neighbourhood system $\{\varphi_i:U_i\to U_i'\subset I\times I\}$ and scale function $\Omega_i: U'_i \to \mathbb{R}$ such that $\Omega_i h_{\tau_i\tau_i}=-1,\, \Omega_i h_{\tau_i \sigma_i}=0,\,\Omega_i h_{\sigma_i\sigma_i}=1$ and partition of unity $\{ \rho_i:U_i'\to\mathbb{R}\}$ (there is such coordinate neighbourhood system and scale function $\Omega_i$ because of conformally flatness) and Polyakov action can be expressed as

$$\tag{2}S=\frac{T}{2}\sum_i \int_{U_i'}d\tau_id\sigma_i\,\rho_i\circ\varphi_i(\tau_i,\sigma_i)\Bigg(\Big(\frac{\partial (X\circ \varphi_i)}{\partial \tau_i}(\tau _i,\sigma_i)\Big)^2-\Big(\frac{\partial (X\circ \varphi_i)}{\partial \sigma_i}(\tau _i,\sigma_i)\Big)^2\Bigg) .$$

However textbook says

Varying with respect to $X^\mu$ such that $\delta X^\mu(\tau_0)=0=X^\mu(\tau_1)$ (textbook uses $[\tau_0,\tau_1]\times[0,l]$ instead of $I\times I$) we obtain $$\tag{3}\delta S=T\int d^2\sigma \delta X^\mu (\partial _\sigma^2-\partial_\tau^2)X_\mu-T\left.\int_{\tau_0}^{\tau_1}d\tau X'_\mu \delta X^\mu\right|_{\sigma=0}^{\sigma=l}.$$

It can't be obtained from $(2)$ by integral by parts because of the term $\rho_i\circ\varphi_i(\tau_i,\sigma_i)$ (derivative of $\rho_i$ appears when one does integral by parts).

Question

Does string theory just consider metrics on world-sheet which are globally conformally flat?

Or is there way to get $(3)$ from (2)?

Edit

I came up with an idea. They probably take coordinate neighbourhood systems which satisfy $int(U'_i)\cap int(U'_j)=\emptyset$ for $i\neq j$ where $int$ means interior (e.g. each $U'_i$ is rectangle subset of $I \times I$). Then each $\rho_i=1$.

However surface terms like

$$\Big[\int d\sigma_i \delta X\cdot \partial \tau _iX\Big]_{\tau_i=0}^{\tau _i=t_i}+\Big[\int d\tau_i \delta X\cdot \partial \sigma _iX\Big]_{\sigma_i=0}^{\sigma _i=s_i}$$

appears from every coordinate neighbourhood. It's not obvious that these terms cancel each other.

Let's suppose each terms cancel each other. The textbook follows that from $(3)$ $X^\mu$ satisfies wave equation

$$(\partial_\sigma^2-\partial_\tau^2)X^\mu=0$$

and the solution is

$$X^\mu(\sigma,\tau)=X_L^\mu(\sigma^+)+X_R^\mu(\sigma^-)$$

which satisfies periodically condition for closed string or boundary condition for open string. From the view of local coordinate systems, it's impossible to construct solution $X^\mu$ on whole the world-sheet $I\times I$ unless the world-sheet is globally conformally flat.

In conclusion, I think physicists' calculation is wrong or they suppose the class of metrics which is globally conformally flat. Is that correct?

Edit2

I found a arxiv that prove the existence of global conformal gauge on $\mathbb{R}^2$. So, $(1)$ is fine for the case of $I\times I$.

I appreciate any idea or reference. I also appreciate it if you tell me how you understood $(1)$ and derived $(3)$ when you studied string theory. Thanks for reading!

1 Answers1

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Obtaining (3) from (2) is by integration by parts as you stated. As to why you believe it cannot be done, you probably are not aware that the boundary term when you integrate over the entire time-like coordinate $\tau$ is assumed to vanish. The string is of finite size at any time slice, but extend indefinitely in time.

The first part of (3) is just the Euler-Lagrange part, the second part is the boundary term coming from integrating over $\sigma$, the third part, which should be the boundary term from integrating over $\tau$, is vanishing as I said before.

'Does string just consider globally flat metric?' I believe you can find solutions to parameters (due to reparametrisation invariance) which enable you to choose two components out of the three components of your auxilliary metric, the remaining component can be rescaled due to Wely-invariance. So locally you can always choose the metric to be flat, i.e. Minkowski.

Rescy_
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