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I'm studying magnetism and as far as I know the Gauss's law for magnetism states that: \begin{equation} \Phi_S(\mathbf{B})=\int_S\mathbf{B} \, \cdot \mathrm{d\mathbf{S}} = 0 \end{equation}

If the magnetic flux is equal to zero, that means magnetic monopoles cannot exist.

However Paul Dirac in 1931 predicted their existence and in 2013 a group of scientists in Massachusetts was able to recreate something really similar to magnetic monopoles by keeping a gas near the temperature of $0 \, \mathrm{K} $.

Can anyone give me a more detailed explanation on why they could exist despite Gauss's Law for electromagnetism?

Qmechanic
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Andrea Berardi
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1 Answers1

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There's a difference between a fundamental magnetic monopole and the experiment you spoke about, i.e., the production of emergent magnetic monopole behavior in a condensed matter system.

Can anyone give me a more detailed explanation on why they could exist despite Gauss's Law for electromagnetism?

They do not exist, as far as we can tell. These researchers created something that behaved like a magnetic monopole. But what appears to always hold true is that the magnetic field has a zero divergence,

$${\bf \nabla\cdot B=0} \\ \text{or}\\ \oint_S B.dS=0$$

That is, for any magnetic field, there will always be two poles. The detection of a "magnetic charge" (a properly isolated north or south pole) has not been achieved thus far, and one could argue that they simply do not exist.

From the link

"The creation of a synthetic magnetic monopole should provide us with unprecedented insight into aspects of the natural magnetic monopole—if indeed it exists," said Hall, explaining the implications of his work.

joseph h
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