I tried to ask this question here, but I formulated it badly and as a result the answers, while correct, didn't address my real concern.
What I really want to know is, in reversible adiabatic expansion, why isn't there a change in the volume of phase space accessible to the system, i.e. why doesn't the Boltzmann entropy change? This post is probably the closest match, in which the first answer sums it up conceptually (the increase in entropy due to volume is offset by the decrease due to drop in temperature) and the last answer sets up the proof for the case of an ideal gas, but no general proof is offered.
In other words, I'm looking for a general proof, and NOT one that relies on Clausius' definition of entropy $dS = \frac{\delta q_{rev}}{T}$ and then asserts the equivalence of Boltzmann and Clausius entropies without justification.
Or to frame it a bit more mathematically, when a system at pressure $p$ and volume $V$ expands by $dV$ and loses $p dV$ worth of internal energy, why is its phase space volume $\Omega$ unaffected? Surely a proof must exist for such a fundamental process.
EDIT: I appreciate the answers and yet they have forced me to realize that I once again failed to articulate this properly, so let me try to expand. Let's go with a closed system; thus
$$\Omega = \Omega(E, V) \tag{1}\label{1}$$ $$d\Omega = \left.\frac{\partial \Omega}{\partial E}\right|_V dE + \left.\frac{\partial \Omega}{\partial V}\right|_E dV \tag{2}\label{2}$$
Also since it's adiabatic, and assuming only P-V work, we know $dE = -p dV$. Then, no change in $\Omega$ becomes equivalent to the condition
$$p\ \left.\frac{\partial\Omega}{\partial E}\right|_V = \left.\frac{\partial\Omega}{\partial V}\right|_E \tag{3}\label{3}$$
So this is what I want to prove. But I want to prove it in the following sense. In addition to $\eqref{1}$ we have
$$p = p(E, V) \tag{4}\label{4}$$
That is, both pressure and phase space volume are functions of energy and volume. And I want to understand why the forms of these two functions have to be so as to satisfy $\eqref{3}$.
In other words, I am looking for a justification based on statistical mechanics, not classical thermodynamics. In particular, pressure is defined mechanically as the flux of momentum through the bounding surface (although since we're in equilibrium, it's really the flux of momentum through any surface you like). So why do the dependence of momentum flux on energy and volume, and the dependence of phase space occupation on energy and volume, have to relate in such a way as to satisfy $\eqref{3}$?