I am currently reading Chapter 2 of Theoretical Astrophysics Vol 1 by T. Padmanabhan. Here he discusses integrable systems in Hamiltonian mechanics. The idea of angle action variables are introduced as a convenient tool to study integrable Hamiltonian systems.
However I do not see the usefulness of defining these variables as opposed to what I feel are more straightforward ways to solve the problem.
My understanding
Based on my understanding angle-action variables are a set of variables $(\theta_i, I_i)$ such that $I_i$ is a function of the integrals of motion of the system denoted by $F$. More specifically,
$$I_i= \sum_j \int_{\mathcal{C}} p_j(q, F)\ dq_j$$
where the integral is evaluated over some curve $\mathcal{C}$. The nature of this curve is not relevant to my question but is explored in more detail in the text I referred to above. The main point is that the action variables $I_i$ are functions of the integrals of motion $F_j$.
This means that if we make a canonical transformation $(q,p)\to (\theta, I)$ then the new Hamiltonian will only depend on the new momenta $I$ and not on the new coordinates $\theta$. This is because from Hamiltonian equations we have,
$$\frac{\partial H}{\partial \theta_i}= \dot{I_i}= 0$$
where the last step holds because $I_i$ is a function of the integrals of motion and hence are constant.
My understanding is that writing the Hamiltonian only in terms of the momenta result in some pretty neat equations for the evolution of the coordinates $\theta_i$ i.e. they are linear in time. This is what makes angle-action variables useful.
My question
My main question is why do we need to define such a complicated function of the integrals of motion $F$. What if we just made the canonical transformation $(q,p)\to (Q, F)$ where the new momenta are just the integrals of motion?
Even in this scenario the Hamiltonian is just a function of the new momenta. This is because,
$$\frac{\partial H}{\partial Q_i}= \dot{F_i}= 0$$
where the last step holds because $F_i$ is an integral of motion. This method would also give simple equations for the evolution of $Q_i$. What benefits does the angle-action approach provide as opposed to just using the integrals of motion themselves as our new conjugate momenta?
Please let me know if there are any flaws in my understanding that could help resolve my question.