Consider the OPE of two operators $$A(z)B(w)=\sum_{n=-\infty}^N \frac{\{AB\}_{-n}(w)}{(z-w)^n}.$$ We omit $\{AB\}_n(w)$ terms for $n>0$ since in the sense of OPE what we only care is the behavior when $z\to w$.
This however doesn't justify omitting $\{AB\}_0(w)$ (which is the definition of normal order in big yellow book), while everybody puts them in regular term without reason. This term doesn't depend on $z\to w$, and under this definition of normal order it's not obvious to me that its VEV vanishes. It's most likely that $\langle \{AB\}_0(w)\rangle=0$ but why? (For your reference the VEV or contraction of operators is defined using path integral.)
Can somebody help explain why this term is not considered in OPE? More restrictions such as A and B are primary are also welcomed.
It would be actually better if there are reasons to disregard all regular terms together. One (definitely incorrect) possibility to take away all regular terms is that VEV of operator product can be written as some contour integral around $w$, but this makes no sense for otherwise we only need the term with $n=1$.