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I am currently studying Analytical Mechanics having among one of the many references the book “Classical Mecanics” by Goldstein. And it is with respect to this that I have a doubt. My goal at the moment is to write down the equations of motions of non-holonomic systems by introducing the Lagrangian $$L^*=L+\sum_{\alpha=1}^k\lambda_\alpha f_\alpha,$$ where in $L$ the generalized coordinates $q_j$, $j=1,\dots, 3N$, are unconstrained. So, given $\alpha=1,\dots,k$ equations of constraint of the form $f_\alpha(q,\dot{q},t)=0$, if we suppose that these are linear in the velocities $\dot{q}_j$, for $j=1,\dots, 3N$, we can write the Lagrange's equations of motion as (eq. 1):

$$ \frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{\partial L}{\partial\dot{q}_j}\right)-\frac{\partial L}{\partial q_j}=\sum_{\alpha=1}^k\frac{\partial f_\alpha}{\partial\dot{q}_j}\lambda_\alpha,\tag{1} $$

where $\lambda_\alpha(t)$ are the Lagrange's multipliers. Here, the Lagrangian $L\equiv L(q,\dot{q},t)$ has no constraints imposed on the generalised coordinates. Then, since:

$$ \frac{d}{dt}\sum_{\alpha=1}^k\frac{\partial f_\alpha}{\partial\dot{q}_j}\lambda_\alpha=\sum_{\alpha=1}^k\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{\partial f_\alpha}{\partial\dot{q}_j}\right)\lambda_\alpha+\sum_{\alpha=1}^k\frac{\partial f_\alpha}{\partial\dot{q}_j}\dot{\lambda}_\alpha, $$

by adding and subtracting the quantities:

$$ \frac{d}{dt}\sum_{\alpha=1}^k\frac{\partial f_\alpha}{\partial\dot{q}_j}\lambda_\alpha\hspace{3mm}\text{and}\hspace{3mm}-\sum_{\alpha=1}^k\frac{\partial f_\alpha}{\partial q_j}\lambda_\alpha $$

in equation (1) it is found that:

$$ \frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{\partial L^*}{\partial\dot{q}_j}\right)-\frac{\partial L^*}{\partial q_j}=Q_j, $$

where $$L^*=L+\sum_{\alpha=1}^k\lambda_\alpha f_\alpha$$ is the new Lagrangian with constraints and:

$$ Q_j=\sum_{\alpha=1}^k\left[\frac{\partial f_\alpha}{\partial\dot{q}_j}\lambda_\alpha+\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{\partial f_\alpha}{\partial\dot{q}_j}\right)\lambda_\alpha+\frac{\partial f_\alpha}{\partial\dot{q}_j}\dot{\lambda}_\alpha-\frac{\partial f_\alpha}{\partial q_j}\lambda_\alpha\right] $$

are the generalized forces associated to the constraints. What I don't get is actually the expression for $Q_j$, because according to Goldstein's Classical Mechanics (3rd edition, page 47, equation 2.25), $Q_j$ should have the form:

$$ Q_j=\sum_{\alpha=1}^k\left[\frac{\partial f_\alpha}{\partial q_j}\lambda_\alpha-\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{\partial f_\alpha}{\partial\dot{q}_j}\right)\lambda_\alpha-\frac{\partial f_\alpha}{\partial\dot{q}_j}\dot{\lambda}_\alpha\right] \tag{2.25} $$

where there are some inconsistent signs and where the term $\frac{\partial f_\alpha}{\partial\dot{q}_j}\lambda_\alpha$ is not present anymore. Does anybody have some insights?

Qmechanic
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Falcy87
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1 Answers1

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In this answer, we discuss the general prospect/aim of OP's approach, rather than checking OP's calculations.

  1. OP's starts with the correct non-variational Lagrange equations (1) for affine non-holonomic constraints (=semi-holonomic constraints).

  2. It should be stressed that the attempt in Ref. 1 to construct a variational formulation for non-holonomic constraints is flawed and has been retracted, cf. this Phys.SE post.

  3. However, it appears OP is not pursuing a variational formulation by introducing an extended Lagrangian $L^{\ast}$. If that is correct, then it seems unclear what benefit OP's result has as compared to the starting point (1).

References:

  1. H. Goldstein, Classical Mechanics, 3rd ed; Section 2.4.
Qmechanic
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