Under normal circumstances, the gravitational force near Earth's surface, $F_g = mg$ is clearly conservative. You can see this either by noting conceptually that the force is constant and work done by gravity is path-independent, or formally by checking that the curl of the field is zero.
What if I changed $g$ so that it was slightly time-dependent, $g(t)$, so the force would vary in magnitude with time, but it would remain spatially homogeneous? Is the new gravitational force conservative?
I have an argument for both yes and no:
YES: this force does not explicitly depend on any spatial coordinates: $F_g(t) = m g(t),$ so the curl of the force must be zero.
NO: Intuitively, imagine picking up an object from $y=0$ to $y=h$, and then setting it back down to $y=0$. Let's imagine we're moving the object up very fast, waiting around for a while, and then moving it down very fast. That way we can approximate $g(t)$ as constant while the object is moving, but significantly different on the way up compared to the way down. In this case, the change in gravitational potential energy on the way up would be $$ \Delta U_{g,up} = mg(t)h $$ and on the way down it would be $$ \Delta U_{g,down} = -mg(t)h. $$ This is a closed loop, so for a conservative gravitational force, $\Delta U_{g}$ should just be zero. However, if $g(t)$ is bigger on the way up than on the way down, the change in potential energy might be non-zero.
So, this force violates both path-independence and it explicitly depends on a non-spatial variable. Thus, it should NOT be conservative.
Which of these explanations is wrong?