In this page of free College Physics text book by OpenStax, they state
this is different from the question Does work-energy theorem involve potentials? because that question is concerned with the theorem applied to objects which makes sense to me. my concern is with the validity of the statement in the college physics text book which applies generally to systems.
The net work done by all forces acting on a system equals its change in kinetic energy. In equation form, this is $W_{\text{net}}=\frac{1}{2}mv^2-\frac{1}{2}mv_0^2 = \Delta KE$.
Now, for most circumstances this makes sense to me.
However, if the system was the earth-object system and an external force to this was applied on the object:

Then if this force is equal to the object's weight, and the object moves with constant velocity. I realize we need to accelerate the object but let's consider the system only during the period it moves with constant velocity, then the kinetic energy of the system does not change although an external force is applied. This would be a contradiction to the statement of the work energy theorem in the textbook.
Now, I realize that the energy has gone into potential energy. My concern however is with the statement of the theorem. Is it correct, and if it is what am I missing that makes it correct?
Should the theorem be applied to something more specific than a system? e.g. an object or a particle? Or, should there be caveats in the types of systems that it applies to?