My question is coming from the (perhaps not fully correct?) understanding that the different spins amount to different possible irreducible representations of SU(2): spin 0 being a singlet (acting on a 1 dimensional space), spin 1/2 a doublet (acting on a 2 dimensional space) etc. In this view, a spin 2 particle should be given realised by an irreducible representation where the space is 5 dimensional.
Now, if I understand correctly, this would be the case, if the particle had positive mass (eg from Wigner's classification https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wigner%27s_classification)- that is, a spin 2 particle with positive mass would be realised by a 5 dimensional field. The notion of spin so far is arising from the fact that the 'stabiliser group' is $SU(2)$ for this massive case. Is this correct so far?
Now, the graviton would be massless. From Wigner's classification, the stabiliser group is now no longer $SU(2)$, but we still call it spin 2, even though it does not seem to relate to $SU(2)$ and it also does not mean that the corresponding particle should be a 5 dimensional field (for example this was discussed in this question What is the relation between the metric tensor and the graviton?).
So now to return to my titled question: based on what I wrote above, is the notion of spin for massless fields slightly misguiding (ie when we say "gravitons are would-be spin 2 particles" is it a little untrue, at least if spin is to be taken as labelling $SU(2)$ representations) or am I simply confused?